Table 4.
SKEL (44/56 ~78.6%) | FGFR1 (2, 901, 38.5%) |
BONE (29/44 ~65.9%) | GNAS (3, 1323, 74.9%), COL9A1 (2, 945, 76.5%), AMELX (2, 205, 66.8%) |
DERM (55/80 ~68.8%) | EDA (4, 460, 63.9%), PLEC1 (3, 4904, 56.6%), ADAR (2, 1226, 53.6%), SLC39A4 (2, 686, 36.3%), PVRL1 (2, 658, 37.2%) |
CANC (152/207 ~73.4%) | BRCA1 (3, 1864, 80.6%), GNAS (3, 1323, 74.9%), FAS (3, 376, 59.3%), MXI1 (3, 320, 88.8%), ATM (2, 3056, 21.1%), DLC1 (2, 1591, 62.7%), PML (2, 1225, 63.9%), ABL1 (2, 1175, 59.2%), AR (2, 927, 60.0%), CHEK2 (2, 586, 37.2%), CASP8 (2, 548, 38.5%), PARK2 (2, 465, 37.0%), SMARCB1 (2, 385, 37.1%), SSX2 (2, 255, 77.3%) |
DEVE (36/53 ~67.9%) | NSD1 (2, 2706, 77.3%), UBE3A (2, 882, 27.8%), PVRL1 (2, 658, 37.2%), TGIF1 (2, 424, 77.4%) |
MCD (142/209 ~67.9%) | MITF (5, 598, 75.6%), GNAS (3, 1323, 74.9%), PITX2 (3, 385, 81.0%), NSD1 (2, 2706, 77.3%), ATRX (2, 2492, 72.2%), COL11A1 (2, 1857, 81.3%), COL18A1 (2, 1551, 74.4%), L1CAM (2, 1257, 27.0%), USH1C (2, 926, 58.4%), FGFR1 (2, 901, 38.5%), HPS4 (2, 783, 42.9%), KCNQ1 (2, 718, 42.3%), PVRL1 (2, 658, 37.2%), DTNBP1 (2, 383, 81.7%) |
CARD (53/96 ~55.2%) | DMD (7, 3771, 54.4%), DTNA (4, 767, 61.0%), KCNH2 (2, 1283, 46.0%), KCNQ1 (2, 718, 42.3%), EYA4 (2, 665, 61.7%), TPM1 (2, 443, 100.0%) |
MUSC (45/68 ~66.2%) | DMD (7, 3771, 54.4%), PLEC1 (3, 4904, 56.6%), COL6A3 (2, 3177, 28.6%), AR (2, 927, 60.0%), CHAT (2, 748, 34.1%), TPM3 (2, 378, 97.6%) |
IMMU (59/115 ~51.3%) | FAS (3, 376, 59.3%), ATM (2, 3056, 21.1%), PTPRC (2, 1307, 42.2%), CASP8 (2, 548, 38.5%), PARK2 (2, 465, 37.0%), UNG (2, 348, 44.5%) |
OPHT (68/120 ~56.7%) | OPA1 (3, 1015, 36.1%), PITX2 (3, 385, 81.0%), PIP5K3 (2, 2108, 52.0%), EYA1 (2, 600, 60.5%) |
CTD (32/51 ~62.7%) | -- |
ENDO (54/96 ~56.3%) | GNAS (3, 1323, 74.9%), AR (2, 927, 60.0%), HNF4A (2, 531, 51.6%), GCK (2, 495, 35.6%) |
NEUR (154/254 ~60.6%) | COLQ (3, 622, 76.0%), PTPRC (2, 1307, 42.2%), L1CAM (2, 1257, 27.0%), KCNQ2 (2, 892, 55.5%), FOXP2 (2, 740, 78.9%), MTMR2 (2, 643, 31.6%), SPAST (2, 616, 51.1%), EYA1 (2, 600, 60.5%), NR4A2 (2, 599, 55.8%), EIF2B4 (2, 555, 47.2%), CACNB4 (2, 538, 60.0%), OPRM1 (2, 492, 34.6%), CCM2 (2, 475, 54.1%), PARK2 (2, 465, 37.0%), DCX (2, 446, 57.8%), DRD2 (2, 443, 39.1%), PNKD (2, 440, 39.5%), ATXN3 (2, 370, 61.6%), FGF14 (2, 316, 46.2%) |
PSYC (18/30 ~60.0%) | -- |
ENT (26/44 ~59.1%) | OTOF (2, 2100, 33.9%), USH1C (2, 926, 58.4%), KCNQ4 (2, 695, 41.3%), EYA4 (2, 665, 61.7%) |
RESP (12/34 ~35.3%) | GDNF (2, 230, 51.3%) |
RENA (35/58 ~60.3%) | -- |
HEMA (58/146 ~39.7%) | CD44 (3, 807, 76.0%), ATRX (2, 2492, 72.2%), ANK1 (2, 2001, 40.9%), ADAMTS13 (2, 1497, 48.6%), EPB41 (2, 850, 66.2%), AMPD3 (2, 781, 36.9%), IGLL1 (2, 228, 86.4%) |
NUTR (6/22 ~27.3%) | -- |
GI (16/34 ~47.1%) | GDNF (2, 230, 51.3%) |
UNCL (12/29 ~41.4%) | -- |
META (75/289 ~26.0%) | GCK (2, 495, 35.6%), HFE2 (2, 426, 42.0%) |
The class identifier is followed by the number of genes with predicted α-MoRFs, the total number of genes, and the fraction of genes with predicted α-MoRFs in that class. This is followed by the list of genes with multiple (>= 2) predicted α-MoRFs. The numbers following each gene symbol are the number of predicted α-MoRFs, the number of amino acids and the disorder content (note that in the case of alternative splicing the number of amino acids includes all exons in a gene and may be larger than the lengths of individual isoforms).