Does testosterone affect effect?

When Luke Fazio and Gerald Brock¹ write that “Testosterone . . . does not effect [sic] reflexogenic or psychogenic erections,” do they mean that testosterone does not directly cause (i.e., effect) such erections? Or did they mean to use “affect,” to indicate that testosterone does not influence or modify such erections? If, as I suspect, the latter is the case, then the corrected statement, that testosterone does not affect psychogenic erections, is somewhat at odds with a statement earlier in the same paragraph that “androgens play a predominantly modulating role by their effect on libido and sexual behaviour.”

Perhaps reference to the cited reference would affect (or even effect) clarity here.

Bill Danby Lecturer, Adjunct Staff Darmouth Medical School Hanover, NH