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. 2021 Jan 9;9(1):e00705. doi: 10.1002/prp2.705

Drug‐drug interactions with candidate medications used for COVID‐19 treatment: An overview

Haleh Rezaee 1,2, Fariba Pourkarim 2, Samira Pourtaghi‐Anvarian 2, Taher Entezari‐Maleki 2, Touraj Asvadi‐Kermani 3, Masoud Nouri‐Vaskeh 4,5,
PMCID: PMC7796804  PMID: 33421347

Abstract

Drug‐drug interaction (DDI) is a common clinical problem that has occurred as a result of the concomitant use of multiple drugs. DDI may occur in patients under treatment with medications used for coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID‐19; i.e., chloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir, ribavirin, tocilizumab, and remdesivir) and increase the risk of serious adverse reactions such as QT‐prolongation, retinopathy, increased risk of infection, and hepatotoxicity. This review focuses on summarizing DDIs for candidate medications used for COVID‐19 in order to minimize the adverse reactions.

Keywords: adverse reactions, chloroquine, COVID‐19, drug‐drug interaction, Kaletra, remdesivir


COVID‐19 is a life‐threatening illness with high prevalence. The use of non‐specific medications may increase the risk of drug‐drug interactions and side effects.

graphic file with name PRP2-9-e00705-g001.jpg


Abbreviations

AZA

azathioprine

COVID‐19

coronavirus disease 2019

DDI

drug‐drug interaction

IMPDH

inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

RBV

ribavirin

RDV

remdesivir

TCZ

tocilizumab

1. INTRODUCTION

Coronaviruses are responsible for major outbreaks of upper respiratory tract infections in both children and adults. On December 2019, novel coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID‐19) emerged in Wuhan, China. 1 , 2 COVID‐19 can cause acute and highly virulence pneumonia. It has quickly spread from China to other countries. 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 COVID‐19 infection is a major global problem that was documented more than 31 132 906 confirmed cases and approximately 962 008 deaths in the world. 6 On March 12, 2020, WHO declared COVID‐19 outbreak a pandemic. Respiratory droplets and person‐to‐person contact are the most common transmission way. The incubation period of COVID‐19 is about 2 weeks. The clinical diagnosis of COVID‐19 is confirmed based on polymerase chain reaction technique. 7 , 8 The most common symptoms of COVID‐19 are fever, dry cough, shortness of breath, and fatigue. 2 , 3 Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as diarrhea and nausea, have also been reported in several patients. 3 , 9 , 10 The overall fatality was reported <2% in patient without underlying disease but higher fatality observed in elderly patients and patients with underlying disease (i.e., cardiovascular disease, diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, hypertension, and cancer). 11 The effective pharmacotherapy can reduce the mortality and morbidity of COVID‐19. 12 Studies are recommended various combination therapy with chloroquine, lopinavir/ritonavir (Kaletra), ribavirin (RBV) and tocilizumab (TCZ) for the treatment of COVID‐19. 13 , 14 , 15 , 16 On May 2, 2020, FDA approves emergency use of remdesivir (RDV) for COVID‐19. One of the most important problems in pharmacotherapy is drug‐drug interaction (DDI) which may significantly increase the adverse effects of drug. The present article focuses on reviewing DDIs of chloroquine, RBV, Kaletra, TCZ, and RDV to reduce side effects of COVID‐19 treatment.

2. RIBAVIRIN

Ribavirin (Virazole®), as a broad‐spectrum antiviral drug, was approved by FDA in 1986 and administered as an aerosol for infants with respiratory syncytial virus infection. 17 RBV is a nucleos(t)ide analogue polymerase inhibitor which is used for the treatment of hepatitis C virus infection in combination with sofosbuvir and pegylated interferon alpha‐2b. 18 , 19 The t 1/2, t max, and bioavailability after a single oral dose of RBV (400 mg) is 1.5 h, 100 h, and 45%–65%, respectively. 20 , 21 Combination therapy with RBV and Xiyanping injection (the extraction of Andrographis paniculata) is widely used for inflammation and bronchitis in china. 22 Also, it used for viral hemorrhagic fever as off‐label. 23 , 24 RBV is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy (Category X). Also, it is necessary avoiding pregnancy during and 6 months after RBV therapy. 25 Dose adjustment is required in patients with renal and liver impairment. The absorption of RBV occurs in the proximal small intestine by Na+‐dependent nucleoside (N1) transporters. 26 It is not bound to plasma proteins. The commonly reported adverse effects of RBV were dyspnea (5%), headache (41%–69%), fatigue (25%–58%), anxiety (47%), apnea, hypotension, rash (15%–17%), and conjunctivitis (5%).

An interaction between RBV and warfarin was reported in a 61‐year‐old man under treatment with interferon, RBV, and warfarin. 27 Also, Peterson et al. 28 evaluate the potential interaction between RBV and warfarin in a 63‐year‐old man under treatment with long‐term warfarin and RBV. A decrease in INR was observed 12 weeks after the initiation of treatment.

RBV may increase the hepatotoxicity of lamivudine 29 and zidovudine may enhance the risk of hematological toxic effects of RBV, specially, and anemia. 29 , 30 , 31 The mechanism of interaction between RBV and zidovudine is competitive inhibition of intracellular phosphorylation of zidovudine by RBV. 32 The interaction between RBV and abacavir can be associated with competitive inhibition in metabolic pathways, 33 but this interaction is not significant. 34 Mitochondrial toxicity and severe metabolic acidosis syndrome are life‐threatening adverse reactions associated with concomitant use of RBV and didanosine that can manifest with symptoms, including pancreatitis, hepatic steatosis, and lactic acidosis. 35 , 36 , 37 , 38 Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH) is a key enzyme in metabolism of azathioprine (AZA) which RBV inhibit this enzyme and enhance the risk of myelotoxicity (i.e., anemia, thrombocytopenia) of AZA. 39 Interaction between RBV and telaprevir was described by Gutierrez‐Valencia et al. 40 , 41 which may enhance the risk of hematological toxicity by increasing the blood levels of RBV. The mechanism of action of this interaction is inhibition of the proximal tubule transport of RBV by telaprevir.

The significant drug interaction may occur between alpha and beta antagonists with sofosbuvir/RBV regimen during HCV therapy that close monitoring is required. 42 The study conducted by Ramanathan et al. 43 has not demonstrated a pharmacokinetic interaction between tenofovir and RBV. The details of RBV drug interactions are shown in Table 1.

TABLE 1.

The details of RBV drug interactions

Interacting drugs The effect of RBV on ADME of other agent The effect of other agent on ADME of RBV Consequence Risk for DDIs References
Antiviral (anti‐HIV)
Didanosine

Mitochondrial toxicity by inhibition of inosine−5′‐mono‐phosphate

↑ intracellular inosine monophosphate pool

↑ serum concentration of the active metabolite(s) of didanosine

↑ risk of pancreatitis, hepatitis, hepatic steatosis, myopathy, neuropathy, lipodystrophy, or lactic acidosis

Avoid combination if possible or close monitoring

X 35, 36, 37, 38
Stavudine

RBV reduces phosphorylation of stavudine

Severe mitochondrial toxicity

↑ risk of lactic acidosis, pancreatitis, and hepatic steatosis

Avoid combination if possible

37
Zidovudine RBV Inhibits the intracellular phosphorylation of zidovudine

Zidovudine may inhibit hematopoiesis and bone marrow response

↑ hematological side effect of RBV (anemia)

Clinical significance

Unknown

D 29, 30, 31, 32
Telaprevir inhibition of the proximal tubule transport of RBV

↑ plasma creatinine and plasma level of RBV

↑ risk of hematological toxicity

No significant interaction

No significant 40, 41
Lamivudine Unknown mechanism

RBV may increase the hepatotoxicity of lamivudine

Monitor hepatic enzymes (AST and ALT)

29
Abacavir Competitive inhibition of phosphorylation

↓ antiviral potency of pegylated interferon plus RBV regimen

RBV increases the toxicity of abacavir

No significant interaction 33
Immunosuppressive drug
AZA

Inhibition of IMPDH by RBV

Interferes with AZA metabolism and increase 6‐methylthioinosine metabolite

↑ serum concentration of active metabolite(s) of AZA

↑ risk of myelotoxicity (i.e., anemia, thrombocytopenia) of AZA

Avoid combination if possible; close monitoring required due to potential for increased hematologic toxicities

D 39
Vitamin K antagonists
Warfarin Unknown mechanism ↓ anticoagulant effect of warfarin C 27, 28

Abbreviations: AZA, azathioprine; IMPDH, inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase; RBV, ribavirin.

3. CHLOROQUINE

Chloroquine, a 4‐aminoquinolone derivative, is used in the prophylaxis and treatment of uncomplicated malaria. It is also effective in systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. 44 , 45 , 46 The serious side effects associated with chloroquine are retinopathy, ototoxicity, and myopathy. 47 , 48 , 49 , 50 Chloroquine can inhibit organic anion transporting polypeptide 1A2 that the inhibition of this transporter is associated with retinopathy. 51 Chloroquine can induce psoriasis in patient as exfoliative erythroderma and pustular psoriasis. 52 The National Health Commission of the People's Republic of China for tentative treatment of COVID‐19 (version 6) recommends chloroquine for the treatment of COVID‐19 at doses of 500 mg oral twice daily for 10 days that may shorten the recovery period and improve pulmonary complication findings in imaging. 53 In patients with CrCl <10 ml/min, the recommended dose of chloroquine is 50% normal dose. 16 , 53 , 54 Chloroquine is completely absorbed after oral administration and it is distributed widely in tissues that include kidney, liver, lung and spleen. 54 About 60% of chloroquine is bound to plasma proteins. It is metabolized by CYP2C8 and CYP3A4 enzymes in the liver and converted into active metabolites (desethylchloroquine and bisdesethylchloroquine). 54 , 55 The mechanism of action of chloroquine is inhibition of the polymerization of heme which heme accumulate as toxic agent in the parasite. 54

The concomitant administration of chloroquine and paracetamol can increase significantly C max of paracetamol and should be used cautiously. 56 The absorption of chloroquine may decrease by antacids and their administration should be separated by at least 4 h to reduce the risk of drug interaction. 57 , 58 A controlled study was performed by Ette et al. 59 for analysis of interaction between cimetidine and chloroquine. The results showed that cimetidine may decrease the metabolism of chloroquine and increase its volume of distribution. The study conducted by Ette et al. 60 showed no significant pharmacokinetic interaction between ranitidine and chloroquine. Therefore, ranitidine is the H2 blocker of choice for ulcer patients receiving chloroquine. Several clinical studies indicate that chloroquine may increase the metformin‐induced cell apoptosis and significantly enhance the metformin‐induced inhibition of cancer cell proliferation. 61 , 62 , 63 Chloroquine may increase the risk of hypoglycemic effect of antidiabetic agents. 64 Chloroquine may reduce the plasma concentration of methotrexate by 20%, 65 but there is no significant pharmacokinetic interaction between chloroquine and methotrexate. Pukrittayakamee et al. 66 studied the potential interaction between primaquine and chloroquine in 16 healthy volunteers. Based on the results, chloroquine may increase the serum concentration of primaquine and enhance the risk of QT prolongation. Chloroquine may increase the mean plasma concentration of penicillamine by 34%. 67 Chloroquine may reduce the plasma concentration of levothyroxine by increasing the catabolism and worsen the control of hypothyroidism. 68 Chloroquine may reduce the bioavailability and serum concentration of praziquantel by 50 may decrease by non‐competitive inhibition of its metabolism by chloroquine. 69 Acute dystonic reaction was reported in a 30‐year‐old woman under treatment with chloroquine and metronidazole. 70 The pharmacokinetic study do not exhibit drug interaction between chloroquine and azithromycin. 71 Chloroquine may reduce the therapeutic effect of agalsidase Alfa and Beta. 72

Chloroquine may reduce the bioavailability of ampicillin by decreasing the rate of gastric emptying and enhancement of bowel motility. 73 The co‐administration of chloroquine and cyclosporine for malaria prophylaxis or rheumatoid arthritis may elevate cyclosporine levels. 74 , 75 , 76 Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic with broad antibacterial activity which concomitant use of it with chloroquine may decrease its plasma concentration to below the minimum inhibitory concentration. 77 , 78 Patients should be cautioned regarding the concomitant use of chloroquine with tamoxifen because it increases the risk of retinopathy. 79 The interaction between chloroquine and other QT prolonging agents such as antipsychotic drugs, cisapride, dronedarone, fluoxetine, tricyclic antidepressants, citalopram, escitalopram, amiodarone, mefloquine and beta blocker (sotalol) has been life threatening, leading to QT prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias. 80 , 81 , 82 Chloroquine can antagonize the antiepileptic effect of carbamazepine. 81 Chloroquine may inhibit the metabolism of metoprolol by the inhibition of CYP2D6. 83 An interaction between chloroquine and methylene blue was reported by Rengelshausen and co‐workers. 84 No pharmacokinetic interaction is observed between chloroquine and imipramine. 85 There is no pharmacokinetic interaction between chloroquine with sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine. 86 Activated charcoal can reduce plasma level of chloroquine by 99% after 5 min. 87 Interaction between indinavir and chloroquine can be enhanced the antimalarial effect of chloroquine against chloroquine‐resistant line and chloroquine‐sensitive line P. chabaudi. 88 There is no clinically significant interaction between tafenoquine and chloroquine. 89 The details of chloroquine drug interactions are summarized in Table 2.

TABLE 2.

“QT‐prolonging antidepressants such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine” is in a same group with other “OT‐prolonging agent”

Interacting drugs The effect of chloroquine on ADME of other agent The effect of other agent on ADME of chloroquine Consequence Risk for DDIs References
Paracetamol Chloroquine can increase significantly C max of paracetamol

↑ paracetamol plasma concentration

Avoid co‐administration

56
Antacids The absorption of chloroquine is reduced by antacids

Should be separated by at least 4 h

Administration should be separated by at least 4 h

D 57, 58
Cimetidine Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism and clearance of chloroquine

May increase the serum concentration of Chloroquine

Consider ranitidine as an alternative or take cimetidine at least 2 h after chloroquine

Consider another antiulcer medication ranitidine or take cimetidine at least 2 h after CQ

C 59
Antidiabetic agent Chloroquine increases insulin sensitivity

May increase the risk of hypoglycemic effect of antidiabetic agents (severe hypoglycemia)

Check blood sugar level and reduce daily dose of insulin

C 64
Immunosuppressive drug
Methotrexate Chloroquine may reduce the bioavailability of methotrexate ↓ maximum plasma levels of methotrexate about 20% and ↓ it's AUC about 28% Not significant 65
Cyclosporine ↓ metabolism of cyclosporine by competitive inhibition (inhibition of P‐gp activity by chloroquine)

↑ cyclosporine levels

Monitor renal function weekly and cyclosporine levels for toxicity

D 74, 75, 76
Primaquine Chloroquine may enhance the serum levels of primaquine

↑ risk of QT interval prolongation

Caution with drugs that affect cardiac conduction

C 66
Penicillamine Chloroquine increases the peak plasma levels of penicillamine about 34%

Severe hematologic and renal toxicity

Monitor acute toxicity

67
Levothyroxine Chloroquine may increase the catabolism of levothyroxine by enzymatic induction

Chloroquine may decrease the plasma concentration of levothyroxine

Poorly controlled hypothyroidism

Monitor TSH levels when beginning and discontinuing chloroquine

68
Praziquantel Chloroquine may decrease the bioavailability of praziquantel

Chloroquine may reduce the serum concentration of praziquantel about 50%

An increased dosage of PZQ should be considered

C 69
Agalsidase‐alfa and agalsidase‐beta Chloroquine inhibits intracellular α‐galactosidase activity

↓ therapeutic effect of agalsidase‐alfa and agalsidase‐beta

Agalsidase α/β should not be used with chloroquine

X 72
Antibiotics
Metronidazole Pharmacodynamic interaction Metronidazole increase the risk of dystonic reaction of chloroquine 70
Ampicillin Chloroquine may decrease the rate of gastric emptying and gut motility ↓ absorption, bioavailability and serum concentration of ampicillin D 73
Ciprofloxacin Chloroquine may increase urinary excretion of Ciprofloxacin

The concentration of ciprofloxacin may decrease to below the minimum inhibitory concentration for Plasmodium falciparum

Avoid co‐administration

77, 78
Tamoxifen Mechanism is unclear, although tamoxifen is a retinal toxin (additive effect with chloroquine)

Tamoxifen may enhance the retinopathy of chloroquine.

Monitor retinopathy regularly.

C 79
QT‐prolonging agent
Amisulpride Additive effect with QT prolongative agent

The concomitant use can increase the risk of QT‐interval prolongation.

Monitor electrolytes level and ECG regularly.

C 80, 81, 82
Domperidone D
Fexinidazole X
Haloperidol C
Ondansetron C
Pentamidine C
Pimozide X
Mefloquine X
QT‐prolonging antidepressants such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine C
Carbamazepine Chloroquine can antagonize the antiepileptic effects of carbamazepine.

Chloroquine decrease seizure threshold

Increased dose of carbamazepine

81
Metoprolol Chloroquine inhibits the metabolism of metoprolol

↑ the plasma level of metoprolol (AUC about 65% and peak plasma level 72%)

Reduce daily dose of metoprolol

83
Methylene blue Methylene blue may decrease the AUC of chloroquine (about 20%) ↓ the plasma level of chloroquine 84
Activated charcoal The absorption of chloroquine may be diminished by activated charcoal

The effect of chloroquine may diminish in the presence of activated charcoal

Avoid co‐administration

87
Indinavir Synergistic activity Indinavir can be increased the antimalarial activity of chloroquine 88

4. LOPINAVIR/RITONAVIR

Kaletra® approved in 2000 for widely used in combination with other antiretroviral compounds to treat HIV‐1 in children 14 days of age and older, also in adults. 90 Lopinavir binds to the HIV‐protease site of activity and prevents the formation of functional proteins required for viral pathogenesis, resulting in non‐infectious and immature viruses. 91 Ritonavir inhibits lopinavir metabolism via CYP3A4 and boosts the plasma levels of lopinavir. Furthermore, when co‐formulated with ritonavir that improves the bioavailability of lopinavir. So it can be said, the significant antiretroviral effects of Kaletra are due to lopinavir. 92 Kaletra binds to plasma proteins approximately 98%–99%, and elimination half‐life after a single‐dose administration is nearly 2–3 h. Kaletra is mainly eliminated with feces and is <2% in the urine. 90 , 93 Kaletra is classified as category C in pregnancy and only prescribed when the beneficial impacts of this on the fetus exceed from harmful effects. 90 The possible adverse effects of Kaletra are hyperglycemia (≤5%), abdominal pain (1%–11%), pancreatitis (≤2%), diarrhea (7%–28%), lipid elevation (3%–39%), nausea (5%–16%), and vomiting (adults 2%–7%; children 21%), and QT prolongation (≤2%). Kaletra could be recommended in high‐risk patients (old patients or patients with underlying disorders) with COVID‐19 as an adjunctive medication based on the evidence of in vitro studies. It was prescribed 400/100 mg twice daily for 14 days. 94 , 95 Nevertheless, recently the results of many studies in the administration of Kaletra in COVID‐19 patients have been controversial. Such as the Coa et al. randomized controlled open‐label trial at 199 hospitalized patients with COVID‐19 (99 patients receiving Kaletra and 100 patients receiving standard care for 14 days) demonstrated that the use of Kaletra alone has not advantageous for clinical improvement in severe COVID‐19. 96 A randomized controlled trial in patients with severe COVID‐19 in Guangzhou, China, was performed to evaluate the efficacy and safety of Kaletra or Arbidol in comparison with the control group and showed the use of Kaletra or Arbidol as monotherapy may not improve clinical outcomes instead increases adverse effects in hospitalized patients. Accordingly, more extensive clinical trials may be required to estimate the efficacy of Kaletra in patients with severe COVID‐19. 97 , 98 Ritonavir is a potent inhibitor of the CYP3A4 and moderate inhibitor of P‐glycoprotein, CYP2D6, OTAP1B1, and OTAP1B3. Also, induced the hepatic enzyme's CYP1A2, CYP2B6, and UGT1A1. Lopinavir is inhibiting CYP3A4 and CYP2D6. 99 , 100 Thus, Kaletra will be many interactions with other groups of medications, and it is crucial to consider these interactions in pharmacotherapy. These interactions with details were described in Table 3.

TABLE 3.

Kaletra drug interactions

Interacting drugs The effect of kaletra on ADME of other agent The effect of other agent on ADME of kaletra Consequence Risk for DDIs References
HMG‐CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)
Atorvastatin Atorvastatin is a CYP3A4 substrate and kaletra will increase the concentration by 5.9 times in the concomitant use Avoid concurrent use or utilize alternative medicine. When the concomitant use is unavoidable, the dose of atorvastatin should not exceed 20 mg per day. Besides the signs of toxicity should be carefully evaluated D 100, 101
Lovastatin Simultaneous use with Kaletra will increase plasma concentration and risk of toxicity Contraindicated X 100, 102
Pravastatin Kaletra can increase the plasma concentration of pravastatin to near 33% during concomitant use(due to inhibiting of OTAP1B1) Use with caution 100, 101
Rosuvastatin Kaletra increases the effects of rosuvastatin by reduction in metabolism Avoid concomitant use or utilize alternative medication D 100, 102
Simvastatin The liver enzymes are inhibiting through Kaletra. Thus, systemic exposure of simvastatin and the risk of rhabdomyolysis increase Contraindicated X 100, 103
Antimalarial agents
Atovaqoune The plasma concentration of Atovaqoune decreases to 74% during simultaneous use with Kaletra Should be monitoring closely C 100
Proguanil The plasma level and AUC of proguanil reduces to 40% when concurrent use with Kaletra (due to inducing of CYP2C19 enzyme by Kaletra)
Quinine The plasma level of quinine increase when concomitant use with ritonavir and its dose should be decreased by 50%. On the other hand, lopinavir and quinine prolonged the QT interval Contraindicated X 100, 104, 105
PDE−5 inhibitors
Sildenafil Kaletra will increase the effect of these medications by affecting hepatic/intestinal enzyme CYP3A4 metabolism Start as the lower dose when to use simultaneously. For example, the start dose of sildenafil should not be more than 25 mg in 48 h D 102, 106
Tadalafil
Vardenafil
Antifungal agents
Posaconazole Ritonavir increases plasma concentrations of Posaconazole by P‐glycoprotein efflux transporter Posaconazole can increase the level of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be used with caution C 100, 107
Voriconazole Ritonavir reduces plasma levels of voriconazole by boosting metabolism Voriconazole can raise the concentration of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Contraindicated X
Eplerenone Plasma level of eplerenone increases due to the effect of ritonavir on CYP3A4 Contraindicated X 101
Calcium channel blockers
Amlodipine The effect of Amlodipine increases in concomitant use with Kaletra via interacting with CYP3A4 Should be used with caution C 100, 101, 108
Non‐dihydropyridine All of them are metabolized by CYP3A4. So, the elevated serum concentration of CCBs through PIs may increase the risk of AV nodal blockade and PR prolongation Avoid concomitant use or use by monitoring of CCB toxicity D
Digoxin Ritonavir increases the level of digoxin about 29% via P‐glycoprotein efflux transporter also by reducing renal and hepatic clearance The effects of digoxin should be monitored carefully in concurrent use with Kaletra. Also, digoxin can prolong the PR interval in combination with PIs D 100, 101
Alfa 1 blockers
Doxazosin The systemic levels of these drugs increase in concurrent use with Kaletra as they are CYP3A4 substrates The plasma level should be exactly titrated 99, 101, 108
Prazosin
Terazosin
Alfuzosin The plasma level of Alfuzosin increases due to the effect of ritonavir on CYP3A4. Also, the QT interval will increase with both lopinavir and alfuzosin Also, the QT interval will increase with both lopinavir and alfuzosin Contraindicated X
Tamsulosin Kaletra will increase levels of tamsulosin by affecting CYP3A4 and 2D6 metabolism
Beta blockers
Carvedilol Ritonavir can increase the effect of these medications in concomitant use by affecting CYP2D6 metabolism. As a result, bradycardia and PR prolongation have been reported Using atenolol instead of these medications is recommended. 99, 100, 101
Metoprolol
Anti‐arrhythmic medications
Amiodarone All of these drugs are substrates for hepatic enzymes (CYP3A4 and 2D6) metabolism. Their plasma levels are increased by the use of Kaletra concurrently. Thus, they may cause cardiac toxicity and many anomalies in the ECG, such as prolonged QT interval Co‐administration of these medications with Kaletra is contraindicated X 99, 100, 101, 108
Dronedarone
Flecainide
Ivabradine
Propafenone
Mexiletine
Anticoagulants
Apixaban Kaletra increases the effects of apixaban by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Avoid concomitant use or utilize alternative medication D 99, 101
Dabigatran Kaletra will increase the plasma concentration of dabigatran and edoxaban by P‐glycoprotein efflux transporter Although a recent case report illustrated that the safe administration of dabigatran with Kaletra by planning consumption to be 1 h apart, co‐administration should be with caution 100, 101, 109
Edoxaban Avoid concomitant use or utilize alternative medication. D 101
Rivaroxaban Kaletra will increase the levels of rivaroxaban via affecting CYP3A4 metabolism This combination may increase the risk of bleeding. So, avoid concomitant use X 99, 101
Warfarin Ritonavir decreases the metabolism of R‐warfarin by inhibiting the CYP3 A4 enzyme. On the other hand, it increases the metabolism of warfarin due to the stimulation of CYP 2D9 and CYP 1A4 enzymes. In general, it will raise the need for warfarin by 2–3 folds Accordingly, INR should be checked routinely during concurrent use with Kaletra C 99, 101, 110
Antidiabetic agents
Nateglinide Kaletra decreases effects of nateglinide. Should be monitoring closely. 99, 111
Repaglinide Kaletra will increase the effects of these medications by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism. Should be used with caution. C
Saxagliptin Limit the dose to 2.5 mg/day while co‐administered by strong CYP3A4 inhibitors. D
Corticosteroids
Budesonide (Nasal & Inhaler) Kaletra increases the effect of these medications by affecting hepatic enzyme's metabolism. Thus, in concomitant use of corticosteroids with Kaletra may cause Cushing syndrome Concurrent use does not suggest. Beclomethasone or Flunisolide could be replaced for these drugs C 99, 100, 112
Fluticasone (Nasal) X
Triamcinolone C
Disulfiram Disulfiram may enhance the toxicity of Kaletra through inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase Contraindicated X 106
Colchicine The plasma level of Colchicine will be increased if used with Kaletra concurrently This combination is contraindicated in cases with hepatic or renal impairment D 99
Antipsychotic agents
Lurasidone Kaletra increases the effect of Lurasidone by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Co‐administration of this drug and strong CYP3Aa inhibitors are contraindicated X 106
Olanzapine Kaletra will increase the effect of Olanzapine by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be used with caution C
Quetiapine The plasma concentration of Quetiapine will increase when used concomitantly with ritonavir. Additionally, both Kaletra and Quetiapine are prolonging the QT interval Its dose should be reduced to one sixth of the standard dose D
Analgesics
Buprenorphine Kaletra may increase the serum level of Buprenorphine by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be monitored closely C 100, 106
Codeine Kaletra decreases the serum concentration of Codeine by affecting CYP2D6 metabolism 99
Methadone Due to the effect of Kaletra on liver enzymes, the AUC significantly decreased during concomitant use with Kaletra®. It also prolongs the QT interval 99, 100, 106
Oxycodone The plasma concentration of oxycodone increases by 2–3 fold with Kaletra, by affecting CYP3A4 & 2D6 metabolisms It should start with a low dose and monitor the effects of toxicity D 99, 100, 113
Tramadol The plasma level of tramadol increases with Kaletra because metabolized by CYP3A4 Should be monitoring closely C 99
Anticonvulsants
Carbamazepine When used concomitantly with ritonavir compounds, carbamazepine may reach toxic levels Carbamazepine decreases the level of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Accordingly, close monitoring and dose adjustment will be needed D 100, 106
Lamotrigine The half‐life of lamotrigine reduces in co‐administration with Kaletra Its dose should be increased by 50% D 106
Phenytoin Phenytoin will decrease the level of Kaletra to 33% by stimulation of hepatic enzymes (CYP3A4 & P‐glycoprotein) metabolism The dose of Kaletra should increase at the concurrent use D 100
Valproate (Divalproex) Kaletra may reduce the serum level of Divalproex Should be monitoring closely C 106
Antidepressants
Bupropion Kaletra decreases the serum concentration of bupropion to 57% by inducing CYP2B6 metabolism Should be monitoring closely C 99, 106
Citalopram Kaletra increases levels of citalopram & escitalopram by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism. So the risk of serotonin syndrome and QT prolongation increases The monitoring of ECG recommended when using Kaletra concurrently. Also, the dose of these drugs should not exceed 20 mg daily for above 60 years 99, 100
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine Ritonavir increases the effect of fluoxetine by affecting CYP2D6 metabolism 99, 100
Mirtazapine Kaletra increases serum concentration of mirtazapine by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism If concurrent use with Kaletra, administration of the minimum effective dose should be considered C 106
Nefazodone Nefazodone metabolized by CYP3A4. So, the plasma level and adverse effects of nefazodone may increase in using with Kaletra concurrently As a result, toxic effects must be monitored closely. The maximum dose should be limited to 50–100 mg/day D 106
Trazodone Kaletra may increase the level of trazodone to 240% by inhibiting CYP3A4 metabolism Using lower initial dose and monitoring CNS & cardiovascular effects should be considered when combined with Kaletra D 99, 106
Natural products
Red yeast rice Kaletra increases the effect of Red Yeast Rice by inhibiting CYP3A4 metabolism. As a result, it may increase the risk of rhabdomyolysis or myopathy and creatine kinase levels Contraindicated X 100
St John's Wort St John's Wort will decrease the effect of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism and P‐glycoprotein efflux transporter Contraindicated X 100, 106
Sedative‐hypnotics & anxiolytics
Alprazolam Kaletra will increase the effect of these medications by inhibiting CYP3A4 metabolism Monitoring for increased toxic effects of alprazolam and starting to be careful prescribing if combined with Kaletra D 106
Buspirone It should be monitored closely for side effects D 106
Midazolam Contraindicated X 106, 114
Triazolam Co‐administration with PIs increases the hypnotic effects and psychomotor disorders. Therefore, this combination is contraindicated X 106
Zolpidem Should be monitoring closely C 99
Salmeterol Kaletra may increase the effect of salmeterol by inhibiting CYP3A4 metabolism Simultaneous use contraindicated due to increased cardiac complications X 99
Antibacterials
Rifabutin Ritonavir may increase the serum concentration of rifabutin by reducing metabolism Furthermore, rifabutin may decrease the effect of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be dose modification and closely monitoring considered D 100
Rifampin Rifampin may decrease the level of Kaletra by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism and P‐glycoprotein efflux transporter. This combination may increase the risk of toxicity specifically may result in hepatocellular toxicity Contraindicated X 100
Ergotamine Ritonavir increases level of ergotamine by decreasing CYP3A4 metabolism Contraindicated X 100
Dronabinol Dronabinol is a CYP3A4 substrate and Kaletra may increase the level of dronabinol by inhibiting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be monitoring closely C 99
Antineoplastics
Bortezomib These medications are often CYP3A4, CYP2B6, and P‐glycoprotein substrates. As a result, Kaletra may increase the plasma concentration of antineoplastic agents by inhibiting these hepatic enzyme's metabolism C 99, 115, 116
Cyclophosphamide C
Docetaxel D
Doxorubicin D
Erlotinib D
Imatinib C
Irinotecan X
Sunitinib D
Vinblastine D
Vincristine D
Vinorelbine C

5. TOCILIZUMAB

Tocilizumab (Actemra®) is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody against the soluble and membrane receptors of IL‐6. It mainly used to treatment of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis. 117 The mechanism of action of TCZ is inhibition of IL‐6 receptors, which stimulates regulatory B cells, and reduces the expression of inflammatory cytokines and chemokine genes. As a result, it increases the expression of synovial fluid proteins. 118 Elimination of TCZ depends on the serum concentration of the drug and is associated with the degree of IL‐6 receptor saturation. The non‐linear pathway is prominent at low serum concentrations. At high concentrations, after the receptors are completely saturated, the non‐specific linear elimination pathway will predominate. Besides, higher sustained target saturation occurs with infused doses of 8 mg/kg every 4 weeks (compared with 4 mg/kg), which leads to a longer half‐life and reduced elimination. Extended exposure to high concentrations of the drug may enhance the responses. 117 , 119 , 120 The volume of distribution of TCZ is restricted to serum compartment. Its elimination rate is relatively slow. 121 The efficacy of the intravenous and subcutaneous formulations of TCZ have been studied and appear to be similar. 117 , 118 Common adverse effects associated with the use of TCZ are gastrointestinal problems, and increased risk of infection. Also, transient neutropenia, elevated hepatic enzymes, and increased total and LDL cholesterol may occur in patients receiving TCZ. 117 , 122 Other side effects that happen frequently are hypertension and headaches. 123 TCZ should not use during pregnancy because adequate evidence is not available for this population. Animal studies display at over human doses (>100 folds) may enhance the inevitable abortion slightly. Analysis of retrospective global results demonstrates that women who have an exposure to this medication for a short time in the first trimester or before conception do not experience a notable risk of anomalies. 118 , 124 Studies show that IL‐6 is one of the key inflammatory cytokines in the development of SARS‐induced inflammation, which raises the insufficiency of alveolar blood‐gas exchange and eventually leads to lung fibrosis and organ failure. 125 , 126 In a study performed on 21 patients with critical COVID‐19, TCZ was combined at a dose of 400 mg intravenously with common drug regimens. Clinical data demonstrate that the symptoms, variations in CT‐opacity, and hypoxemia rapidly improved after the TCZ administration. No side effects or lung infections reported during treatment. Accordingly, TCZ could be recommended as an effective medication for severe cases of COVID‐19. 127 In vitro studies explain that TCZ inhibits the downregulation of CYP (CYP3A4, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, and CYP1A2) enzymes by IL‐6, which may interact with medications that are a substrate for these enzymes. Therefore, when taken concomitantly with medicines that have a narrow therapeutic window such as warfarin, phenprocoumon, theophylline, cyclosporine, and phenytoin should be considered particular care. Also, due to the long half‐life of TCZ, it may be required monitoring of these interactions for 1–2 months after discontinuation of TCZ. 117 , 128 One study reported three cases of mesenteric arterial thrombosis associated with the application of TCZ in patients who were under previous anticoagulant therapy. The use of TCZ may stimulate the metabolism of anticoagulants by reducing the inhibitory effects of IL‐6 on CYP450 enzymes. Rivaroxaban is a substrate of CYP3A4 and P‐glycoprotein, and warfarin is a substrate of the CYP2B6, CYP3A4, CYP2C19, and CYP2C9 enzymes which used simultaneously with TCZ reduces the plasma concentration of these anticoagulants. So, this can lead to thrombosis. P‐glycoprotein restricts the absorption of dabigatran. Inhibition of IL‐6 by TCZ, modifying P‐glycoprotein function, thereby reducing the bioavailability of dabigatran etexilate. Accordingly, concurrent use with TCZ reduces the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran and helps to progress thrombosis. 129 Pharmaceutical interactions studies show that simvastatin plasma levels (substrate CYP3A4) decrease when administered concurrently with TCZ. In other words, 1 week after administration of 10 mg/kg single dose of TCZ, the AUC of simvastatin reduces by 57% (2.3‐fold reduction). 121 , 130 The combination of TCZ with TNF‐α inhibitors such as adalimumab, due to their synergistic effect on modulating the immune responses, concerns about serious infections and injection site reactions increases. 118 , 131 Also, a combination of omeprazole and TCZ decreases omeprazole AUC by increased CYP2C19 activity. 121 The details of TCZ drug interactions are summarized in Table 4.

TABLE 4.

TCZ and RDV drug interactions

Tocilizumab
Interacting drugs The effect of TCZ on ADME of other agent The effect of other agent on ADME of TCZ Consequence Risk for DDIs References
Anticoagulants
Dabigatran etexilate TCZ may reduce the effects of these medications by affecting the CYP450 enzyme's metabolism and function of P‐glycoprotein This combination may increase the risk of thrombosis 117, 129
Phenprocoumon
Rivaroxaban
Warfarin
Simvastatin TCZ decreases the concentration of simvastatin by affecting CYP3A4 metabolism Should be used with caution 121, 130
Theophylline TCZ may reduce the effects of theophylline and phenytoin by affecting the CYP450 enzymes metabolism Should be dose modification and closely monitoring considered 117, 128
Phenytoin
Cyclosporin TCZ may reduce the effect of cyclosporin. Also, a combination of cyclosporin with TCZ increases the risk of infection Should be dose adjustment and monitoring closely
Omeprazole TCZ reduces the concentration of omeprazole by affecting CYP2C19 metabolism Should be used with caution 121
Adalimumab (Anti TNF‐α agents) Both of them increase risk of serious infection and immunosuppressive effects Contraindicated X 118, 131
Remdesivir
Interacting drugs The effect of RDV on ADME of other agent The effect of other agent on ADME of RDV Consequence Risk for DDIs References
Rifampicin Concomitant use may increase the risk of hepatotoxicity Contraindicated X 132
Methimazole Unknown mechanism Dose monitoring recommended in concurrent use 132
Immunosuppresive agents RDV may affect the plasma level of these medications by an unknown mechanism Monitoring levels of immunosuppressive medications suggested in concomitant use 133
Carbamazepine Carbamazepine could decrease the levels of RDV significantly This interaction not reported experimentally 134

Abbreviations: Risk for DDIs columns: X: Avoid Combination; D: Consider Therapy Modification; C: Monitor Therapy; —: Enough data are not available.

6. REMDESIVIR

Remdesivir (by pharmaceutical code: GS‐5734) is an antiviral medication. In 2014, the effects of RDV on Ebola virus was evaluated by Eastman et al. 135 in West Africa. RDV is a prodrug of nucleoside analogous that metabolized via intracellular anabolic kinase to active nucleoside triphosphate metabolite (GS‐443902) in tissues. 94 It inhibits the activity of RNA polymerase and prevents duplication of virus in the infectious cycle. 94 , 136 , 137 In 2017, the antiviral effects of RDV on the SARS and MERS viruses were evaluated and show effective results against these viruses and other coronaviruses. 138 With the advent of COVID‐19, hopes for the efficacy of RDV increased again. Some studies, such as Wang et al., have shown that the RDV has a notable effect on the restriction of viral infection in cultured cells in the laboratory. 13 Besides, in vitro and pre‐clinical in‐vivo animal models also support the effects of RDV against SARS‐CoV‐2. 135 RDV is produced as a lyophilized powder and is administered as an IV infusion over 30 min to achieve high concentrations of active intracellular metabolite. 94 Based on pharmacokinetic data, the plasma half‐life of RDV prodrug is short (t 1/2 = 0.39 h) when prescribed at a dose of 100 mg/day by a loading dose of 200 mg for a maximum of 10 days in non‐human primates. However, levels of intracellular triphosphate form remain in the human body for a longer time (t 1/2 = 20 h). 133 , 135 Data related to the elimination pathway of RDV and dose adjustment in patients with renal or hepatic impairment are not available. 94 , 133 Reported adverse effects of RDV in three patients in the United States include vomiting, rectal bleeding without other symptoms, nausea and gastroparesis. Also, these patients experience high levels of aminotransferase during 1–5 days after the initiation of RDV. 94 The most prominent side effect of RDV appears to increase liver enzymes (ALT & AST). For this reason, the evaluating level of liver enzymes before starting treatment with RDV is recommended. If the ALT level was more (>5 fold) than the normal upper limit, RDV must hold or not initiate. Additionally, RDV should not be used in glomerular filtration rate <30 ml/min. 132 Available information for RDV during pregnancy is inadequate. Only one randomized trial investigated the effects of RDV in six pregnant women during the Ebola epidemic and any side effects not reported. 139 So far, no contraindications have identified for this medication; except concurrent use with other proven hepatotoxic drugs such as rifampicin. Based on the rapid pharmacokinetics of distribution, metabolism, and excretion of RDV, the probability of clinical interactions seems low (dose monitoring recommended in concomitant use with methimazole). 132 No interaction found between immunosuppressants and RDV. Nevertheless, when using with RDV concomitantly monitoring levels of immunosuppressive medications suggested. 133 RDV at in vitro studies appears to be a substrate for CYP2C8, CYP2D6, and CYP3A4 enzymes. However, on in vivo conditions, the metabolism of RDV is following the action of hydrolase, which indicates that potential clinical interactions with inhibitors or inducers of CYP enzymes are unlikely. For example, the concurrent use of RDV with carbamazepine could decrease the levels of RDV significantly, whereas this interaction not reported experimentally. Moreover, according to the weak role of hepatic enzymes in RDV metabolism, the probability of this interaction will be much lower. In general, RDV drug interactions are not verified carefully. Accordingly, possible interactions may help to discover potential clinical drug interactions associated with RDV. 134 Generally, the evidence about the safety and efficacy of RDV in the treatment of COVID‐19 is limited. Due to the ambiguous effects of RDV against COVID‐19, it has not been obtained definitive approval from FDA. Only ordered for patients in clinical trials, emergency states, or compassionate use. 135 , 140 , 141 These interactions with details were described in Table 4.

7. CONCLUSION

COVID‐19 is currently a global and life‐threatening issue and there is no FDA‐approved vaccine for prevention of it. FDA approves emergency use of RDV for COVID‐19. Based on the clinical data, pharmacotherapy including chloroquine, Kaletra, RBV, and TCZ is recommended for the treatment of COVID‐19. Patients with underling disease have a higher risk for COVID‐19 infection because often need to be treated with multiple medications. Polypharmacy may increase the risk of DDIs and decrease patient compliance. DDI may put the patient at risk for serious adverse effects and reduce safety and efficacy of treatment. Chloroquine and Kaletra are metabolized by CYP 450 enzymes. In conclusion, they have a higher potential for drug interaction with CYP 3A4 inducers or inhibitors. The interaction of chloroquine or Kaletra with other QT prolonging agents has been life threatening and it is necessary to monitor the plasma concentration of these drugs. The concomitant use of chloroquine and tamoxifen may enhance the risk of retinopathy. The induction of CYP enzymes by TCZ may reduce the effect of other drugs that are metabolized by these pathways. Concomitant use of TCZ and immunosuppressants such as cyclosporine and adalimumab is contraindicated because this interaction can increase the risk of infection. Drug interactions of each drug are described in details and tabulated for easy access. It will be useful to guide clinicians in drug selection, improve safety of treatment, and decrease the risk of adverse drug events.

DISCLOSURES

The authors declare that there is no conflict of interest.

AUTHOR CONTRIBUTIONS

H.R. and M.N‐V. devised the main conceptual ideas. F.P., S. P‐A., and H.R. wrote the initial draft of the manuscript. H.R., F.P., and S.P‐A. prepared the figures. M.N‐V., T.E‐M., and T.A‐K. reviewed the manuscript and edited it critically for important intellectual content. M.N‐V. supervised the study.

Rezaee H, Pourkarim F, Pourtaghi‐Anvarian S, Entezari‐Maleki T, Asvadi‐Kermani T, Nouri‐Vaskeh M. Drug‐drug interactions with candidate medications used for COVID‐19 treatment: An overview. Pharmacol Res Perspect. 2021;9:e00705 10.1002/prp2.705

DATA AVAILABILITY STATEMENT

Not applicable.

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